Is it proper to give a patient Oxycontin and Percocet for pain that supposedly results from knee arthritis?

The man had a commuted left patella fracture and supposedly he developed patellofemoral arthritis secondary to this injury. The doctor claims that he has chronic pain syndrome from it and prescribed him Percocet and Oxycontin. Is this proper? Aren’t Percocet and Oxycontin too strong for arthritis of the knee? Would not Celebrex suffice?

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Tags: Arthritis, arthritis of the knee, celebrex, chronic pain syndrome, fracture, oxycontin, percocet